List of 200 + selected multiple choice objective question and answers on Human Resource Management.
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on HRM (Human Resource Management )
Q.1. The process of locating and encouraging potential applicants to apply for an existing or an anticipated job openings is called_________.
(a) selection
(b) placement
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(c) recruitment
(d) induction
Ans. (c)
Q.2. Who said “Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in organisation”?
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(a) Frederick Herzberg
(b) David McClelland
(c) Douglas McGregor
(d) Edwin B. Flippo
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Ans. (d)
Q.3. Employee referral is______________ .
(a) an internal method of recruitment
(b) an indirect method of recruitment
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(c) third party method of recruitment
(d) an internet recruiting
Ans. (a)
Q.4. Advertisements, television, radio ad.s, and newspaper ad.s are_______________ method of recruitment
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(a) an internal method of recruitment
(b) an indirect method of recruitment
(c) third party method of recruitment
(d) direct recruiting
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Ans. (b)
Q.5. _____________ is an extended work sample.
(a) Intelligence test
(b) Assessment Centre
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(c) Personality test
(d) Interest test
Ans. (b)
Q.6. Attributing characteristics to individuals based on their inclusion or membership in a particular group is called____________ .
(a) resort to snap judgment
(b) stereotyping
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(c) leniency
(d) halo effect
Q.7. Assigning a specific rank and responsibility to an employee is known as__________.
(a) job
(b) task
(c) placement
(d) selection
Ans. (c)
Q.8. Inputs to the selection process include all but_____________.
(a) job analysis
(b) supervision
(c) HR planning
(d) job applicants
Ans. (b)
Q.9. Which among the following tests measure self-confidence, motivation, emotional balance etc.?
(a) Intelligence test
(b) Preference test
(c) Personality test
(d) Interest test
Ans. (c)
Q.10. Positive features and benefits offered by an organisation to attract job applicants is known as ___________.
(a) inducement
(b) increment
(c) package
(d) compensation
Ans. (a)
Q.11. In which of the following method of recruitment, employees are encouraged to recommend the names of their friends working in other organisations for possible vacancy in the near future.
(a) job posting
(b) gate hiring
(c) campus recruitment
(d) employee referrals
Ans. (d)
Q.12. Job posting is______________ .
(a) posting of an employee
(b) a method of Recruitment
(c) is an appraisal technique
(d) an internet recruitment
Ans. (b)
Q.13. In which method of recruitment, the organisation publicises job openings on bulletin boards, electronic media and similar outlets?
(a) Employee referrals
(b) Job Posting
(c) Employment detail
(d) Job Opening
Ans. (b)
Q.14. Compensation will be perceived as fair if it is comprised of a system of components developed to maintain ______________.
(a) internal equity
(b) external equity
(c) both internal and external equity
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
Q.15. Health insurance, retirement pension, payment for overtime, etc., are __________.
(a) base pay
(b) variable pay
(c) benefits
(d) all of these
Ans. (c)
Q.16. Wage and salary survey ensures about_______________ .
(a) Internal equity
(b) External equity
(c) INDIVIDUAL equity
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
Q17. Which among the following allowances is paid to employees in order to enable them to face the increasing price of essential commodities?
(a) Bonus
(b) Rent allowance
(c) Increment in salary
(d) Dearness allowance
Ans. (d)
Q.18. Which among all the three wages, minimum wage, fair wage and living wage is the highest kind of wage?
(a). Fair wage
(b) Minimum wage
(c) Living wage
(d) All of these
Ans. (c)
Q.19. The minimum wage can be fixed by______________ .
(a) hour
(b) day
(c) month
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
Q.20. Under which plan if a worker reaches the standards, he will be paid time wage plus a bonus at fixed percentage (20%) of normal time wage?
(a) Gantt Task and Bonus Plan
(b) Merrick plan
(c) Halsey Plan
(d) Rowan plan
Ans. (a)
Q.21. Deciding how much an employee should be paid observing internal as well as external equity is called _________.
(a) comparable worth
(b) wage curve
(c) salary survey
(d) compensation administration
Q.22. Rewards that one gets from the employer, usually money, a promotion or benefits is called _____________________.
(a) intrinsic rewards
(b) extrinsic rewards
(c) self-motivated reward
(d) organisation reward
Q.23. Fringe Benefits are______________ .
(a) supplementary compensation
(b) base compensation
(c) merit Plan
(d) bonus
Q.24. Remuneration to blue collar workers is called______________ .
(a) wage
(b) salary
(c) compensation
(d) payment
Q.25. When efficiency of a worker reaches____________ he gets bonus under Emerson’s Efficiency Plan?
(a) Efficiency reaches 67%
(b) efficiency reaches 50%
(c) efficiency reaches 76%
(d) efficiency reaches 20%
Ans. (a)
Q.26. A dyadic relationship between a manager who is offering help and an employee to whom such help is given. This is known as____________.
(a) Mentoring
(b) Counselling
(c) Coaching
(d) Helping
Ans. (b)
Q.27. The range of destructive stress or Distress is from______________ .
(a) low to moderate
(b) moderate to high
(c) high to low
(d) none of these
Q.28. The belief that conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group is a _____________ .
(a) traditional view
(b) human relation view
(c) interactionist view
(d) functional view
Ans. (b)
Q.29. Job enlargement, Job enrichment, Job rotation and Job simplifications are the various techniques used in an exercise.
(a) job analysis
(b) job rotation
(c) job enlargement
(d) Moods
Ans. (a)
Q.30. Job Characteristics model was developed by_______________ .
(a) Hackman and Oldham
(b) Herzberg
(c) Taylor
(d) Fredrick
Q.31. _________ helps to develop Job design.
(a) job analysis
(b) job rotation
(c) job enlargement
(d) Moods
Ans. (a)
Q.32. Which of the following is a written statement of the skills, knowledge, abilities, and other characteristics needed to perform a job effectively?
(a) Job Analysis
(b) job specification
(c) job enlargement
(d) Job design
Ans. (b)
Q.33. The job characteristics approach was popularised by_____________ .
(a) Maslow
(b) Hackman and Oldham
(c) Taylor
(d) Mayo
Ans. (b)
Q.34. Which one of the following is not an approach to work design?
(a) engineering approach
(b) motivational theories (two factor theories)
(c) socio-technical system method
(d) scientific approach
Ans. (d)
Q.35. Vertical enhancement of job is known as________________ .
(a) job enrichment
(b) job rotation
(c) job enlargement
(d) Moods
Q.36. The method that depends mainly on the ability and experience of the supervisors for gathering relevant information about the job is called the
(a) work simplification method
(b) data collecting method
(c) Critical Incident
(d) Technical conference Method
Q.37. Who has given “Hierarchy of Needs” theory?
(a) Abraham Maslow
(b) McClelland
(c) Fredreick Herzberg
(d) Henry Fayol
Q.38. Two-Factor Theory is also known as ______________ .
(a) Theory X and Y
(b) Motivation-hygiene theory
(c) Negative and Positive
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.39. Who proposed ERG Theory?
(a) Gene Broadwater
(b) Edwin Locke
(c) Victor Vroom
(d) Clayton Alderfer
Q.40. MBO Stands for____________ .
(a) Management by objectives
(b) Management by observation
(c) Management by ownership
(d) Management by operation
Ans. (a)
Q.41. ESOP stands for_____________ .
(a) Employee Stock Ownership Plans
(b) Employees Share Ownership Plans
(c) Employer Stock Ownership Plans
(d) Employer Share Ownership Plans
Ans. (a)
Q.42. Compensation based on some established formula designed around a company’s profitability is known as____________ .
(a) profit sharing plan
(b) gain sharing
(c) bonuses
(d) piece-rate pay plan
Ans. (a)
Q.43. Reinforcement Theory has an impressive record of predicting______________ .
(a) dependent variables
(b) performance variables
(c) absenteeism
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
Q.44. A participative process that uses entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organisation’s success, is known as ______________ .
(a) Works council
(b) Employee participation
(c) Employee involvement
(d) Participative management
Q.45. Who proposed “Theory X and Theory Y”?
(a) Frederick Herzberg
(b) David McClelland
(c) Douglas McGregor
(d) Abraham Maslow
Q.46. Works council and board representative are forms of______________ .
(a) employee Participation
(b) employee involvement
(c) quality circle
(d) participative management
Q.47. Company-established benefits plans in which employees acquire stock as part of their benefits is known as,____________.
(a) fringe benefit
(b) bonus
(c) flexible benefit
(d) ESOP
Ans. (d)
Q48. Which of the following tasks represents a leadership responsibility?
(a) Budgeting
(b) Aligning people
(c) Organising
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q.49. Emotional Intelligence____________.
(a) is genetic
(b) can be learned
(c) cannot be improved
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
Q.50. Recognising and rewarding success form part of the ______________ process of motivating and inspiring.
(a) Leadership
(b) Management
(c) Negotiation
(d) Motivation
Ans. (a)
Q.51. A charismatic leadership has which of the following characteristics?
(a) Builds a strong and distinctive image for the organisation
(b) Seeks to pick up the mood of the audience
(c) Employs a clear chain of command
(d) Takes the view that rewards and punishment motivate staff
Ans. (a)
Q.52. A democratic leadership style has which of the following characteristics?
(a) Split power
(b) Genuine
(c) Dictatorial leader
(d) None of these
Q.53. Performance appraisal is conducted for_______________ .
(a) manager
(b) employees
(c) executives
(d) subordinates
Q.54. BARS is combination of______________.
(a) confidential report and rating scale
(b) forced choice method and confidential report
(c) critical incident technique and rating scale
(d) checklist and critical incident technique
Ans. (c)
Q.55. This among the followings is not a method of Performance Appraisal,
(a) Self-appraisal
(b) Rating scale
(c) Group Appraisal
(d) 360-degree
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)
Q.56. Forced choice method is______________
(a) used to correct the tendency of a rater to give consistently high or low ratings to all the employees.
(b) multi person evaluation method
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
Q.57. Critical incident technique provides __________________ basis for conducting employee’s performance.
(a) subjective
(b) objective
(c) non-quantitative
(d) none of these
Q.58. The rater gives greater weightage to recent occurrence than earlier performance, this type of judgmental error is known as____________ .
(a) Halo
(b) Horn effect
(c) Stereotyping
(d) Recency effect
Ans. (d)
Q.59. Which among the following techniques of performance appraisal was developed to eliminate bias and the preponderance of high ratings that might occur in some organisation?
(a) Confidential report
(b) Forced choice method
(c) Critical incident technique
(d) Checklist
Ans. (b)
Q.60. Ranking is:_____________ .
(a) multi-person evaluation method
(b) individual evaluation method
(c) other method
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
Q.61. Essay evaluation method is______________ .
(a) subjective
(b) objective
(c) quantitative
(d) none of these
Q.62. The management information system (MIS) responds to the need for___________ .
(a) electronic data processing
(b) managerial information
(c) accounting application
(d) utility billing information
Ans. (b)
Q.63. PERT and CPM are
(a) Project evaluation techniques
(b) Assignment techniques
(c) Network techniques
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c)
Q.64. A system must be composed of more than one______________ .
(a) subsystem
(b) element
(c) super system
(d) place
Ans. (b)
Q.65. Inventory is also referred to as_______________ .
(a) stock
(b) warehouse capacity
(c) materials
(d) materials in hand
Ans. (a)
Q.66. A long-range management information system plan provides __________ for the development.
(a) direction
(b) finance
(c) control
(d) coordination
Ans. (a)
Q.67. In-basket method of training is helpful in enhancing
(a) interpersonal skills
(b) job knowledge
(c) decision-making skills
(d) organisational knowledge
Ans. (c)
Q.68. Job rotation and multiple management method of training is helpful in enhancing ____________.
(a) interpersonal skills
(b) job knowledge
(c) decision-making skills
(d) organisational knowledge
Ans. (d)
Q.69. Training Evaluation methods include all but _____________.
(a) questionnaire
(b) Cost benefit analysis
(c) human resource factor
(d) checklist
Ans. (d)
Q.70. A concept that people tend to repeat responses that give them some type of positive reward and avoid actions associated with negative consequences is called ______________.
(a) Punishment
(b) Positive motivation
(c) Obsolescence
(d) Reinforcement
Ans. (d)
Q.71. All are simulation methods of training except one______________ .
(a) case studies
(b) decision games
(c) role playing
(d) lecture method
Ans. (b)
Q.72. On-the-job experiences, coaching and understudy methods of training is helpful in enhancing ______________.
(a) interpersonal skills
(b) job knowledge
(c) decision-making skills
(d) organisational knowledge
Ans. (b)
Q.73. Business game and case study method of training is helpful in enhancing
(a) interpersonal skills
(b) job knowledge
(c) decision-making skills
(d) organisational knowledge
Ans. (c)
Q.74. Trade Union Act was passed in the year______________ .
(a) 1926
(b) 1936
(c) 1958
(d) 1916
Ans. (a)
Q.75. Rules and regulations which govern the conditions of employment of workers is stated in ______________ .
(a) Standing Orders
(b) Industry Relations
(c) Factories Act
(d) None of these
Q.76. JMC stands for_____________ .
(a) Junior Management Committee
(b) Junior Management Council
(c) Joint Management Committee
(d) Joint Management Council
Ans. (d)
Q.77. Out of provocation, workers may go on strike without notice or at a very short notice, such strike is called ________________.
(a) Sectional strike
(b) Lightning strike
(c) Sit-down strike
(d) Unofficial strike
Ans. (b)
Q.78. JIT stands for_____________ .
(a) Job Instruction Training
(b) Job Information Training
(c) Job Incentive Technology
(d) Job Incentive Training
Q.79. Industrial Disputes Act commenced in the year_______ .
(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1926
Q.80. A strike which is started without the consent of union is called______________ .
(a) Slow-down strike
(b) Bumper strike
(c) Hunger strike
(d) Unofficial strike
Ans. (d)
Q.81. Conciliation Officer is appointed by central or state government to mediate in all disputes, and he is required to give his judgement within_____________ days of the commencement of conciliation proceeding.
(a) 10
(b) 16
(c) 15
(d) 14
Q.82. Lockout means closing down the place of business but not the business itself.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) Partly false
Ans. (a)
Q.83. AIOE stands for______________ .
(a) All India Organisation of Employees
(b) All India Organisation of Employment
(c) All India Organisation of Employers
(d) All India Organisation of Empowerment
Ans. (c)
Q.84. A union whose members do one type of work, often using specialised skills and training is known as ______________.
(a) Craft union
(b) Industrial union
(c) General union
(d) Federations
Ans. (a)
Q.85. How many members can constitute to form a registered Trade Union?
(a) 100
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 50
Ans. (c)
Q.86. Complaint and Grievance are one and the same thing,
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot be determined
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q.87. When a worker faces a problem then according to Model Grievance Procedure, given by National Commissions on Labour, firstly he/she will report to_____________ .
(a) Foreman
(b) Supervisor
(c) HOD
(d) Manager
Q.88. When dissatisfaction at the work place, mostly related to work is brought to the notice of the management, it is known as____________ .
(a) Complaint
(b) Grievance
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Negative discipline
Q.89. In a model Grievance Procedure, the Supervisor has to respond against the grievance within _______________.
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 7 days
(d) 5 days
Ans. (a)
Q.90. During suspension of an employee, employer is liable to pay 50% of wages/salary as emoluments till enquiry is going on. What is the outer limit of that enquiry in terms of days. Beyond that if enquiry goes on then 75% of salary/wages has to be paid to the employee ______________.
(a) 60 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 45 days
Ans. (c)
Q.91. Termination from employment for any of the misconducts mentioned in the Industrial Employment Act, 1946 is called___________ .
(a) Discharge
(b) Suspension
(c) Layoff
(d) Dismissal
Ans. (d)
Q.91. Quality circle was first established in______________ .
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) America
(d) Korea
Ans. (a)
Q.92. Employee disclosure of an employer’s illegal, immoral or illegitimate practices to persons or organisations that may be able to take corrective action is called____________.
(a) Whistle-blowing
(b) Business ethics
(c) Responsible employee
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Whistle-blowing
Q.93. If the number of days of suspension exceeds beyond 90 days, due to delay in the enquiry from the part of employer then in such condition how much wages/salary + D.A. employee will get thereafter?
(a) 50%
(b) 90%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%
Ans. (d) 75%
Q.94. Which model was accepted by Indian Labor Conference in its 16th session held in 1958, in India?
(a) Grievance procedural model
(b) Labor procedural model
(c) Wages procedural model
(d) Negotiation procedural model
Ans. (a) Grievance procedural model
Q.95. Collective Bargaining is a_______________ .
(a) bipartite process
(b) tripartite process
(c) arbitration process
(d) conciliation process
Ans. (a) bipartite process
Q.96. Arbitration may be____________ .
(a) voluntary
(b) compulsory
(c) both a and b
(d) none of these
Ans. (c) both a and b
Q.97. Reservation price is also known as_____________ .
(a) Walkaway
(b) BATNA
(c) ZOPA
(d) None of these
Q.98. Which among the following negotiators’ role is not to settle the issues but to improve the relation so as they can reach the settlement themselves?
(a) Mediator
(b) Arbitrator
(c) Conciliator
(d) Consultant
Ans. (d) Consultant
Q.99. When does complain become a grievance?
(a) When it is known by one employee to another
(b) Both are same
(c) When it is brought to the notice of management
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (c) When it is brought to the notice of management
Q.100. Development aims at improving_______________ .
(a) Total personality of an individual
(b) Specific skill relating to job
(c) Organisation culture
(d) All of these
Ans. (a) total personality of an individual
Q.101. In international, labour, family and community disputes which method of negotiation is extensively used ___________________.
(a) mediation
(b) arbitration
(c) conciliation
(d) consultant
Ans. (c) conciliation
Q.102. EFI stands for ______________.
(a) Employees’ Federation of India
(b) Employers’ Federation of India
(c) Employers’ Federation of Industries
(d) Employees’ Federation of Industries
Ans. (b) Employers’ Federation of India
Q.103. A Procedure by which the terms and conditions of employment of workers are governed by agreements between their bargaining agents and employers is known as _______________ .
(a) Collective bargaining
(b) Negotiation
(c) Good Faith bargaining
(d) Bargaining zone
Ans. (a) Collective Bargaining
Q.104. All among the following methods are Off-the-job Methods except one.
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Committee Assignment
(c) Role playing
(d) Lecture method
Q.105. Employee’s dissatisfaction is not because of any valid reason but because of wrong perception, wrong attitude or wrong information he has. This type of grievance is known as ______________.
(a) Factual
(b) Imaginary
(c) Disguised
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Imaginary
Q106. Which among the followings is a method of training?
(a) Job enrichment
(b) Job enlargement
(c) Job rotation
(d) None of these
Q.107. An interpersonal process used by two or more parties whereby both or all modify their demands to reach an agreement is called____________ .
(a) Collective bargaining
(b) Negotiation
(c) Good Faith bargaining
(d) Bargaining zone
Ans. (b) Negotiation
Q.108. The practical application of the collaborating and compromising approaches to conflict management is known as ____________.
(a) Arbitration
(b) Negotiating
(c) Meditating
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q.109. Who has given ‘Red Hot Stove Rule’?
(a) Selye
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Douglas McGregor
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.110. In which of the following methods of training a senior manager in an organisation assumes the responsibility for grooming a junior person?
(a) Coaching
(b) JIT
(c) Mentoring
(d) Apprenticeship training
Q111. Kirkpatrick Four-level Approach for training Impact Evaluation include all but_____________ .
(a) reaction
(b) learning
(c) behavior
(d) return on investment
Ans. (d)
Q112. Court of Enquiry needs to submit its report after solving the dispute within________.
(a) 10 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 5 months
(d) 12 months
Ans. (b)
Q.113. Temporary closure of a unit called from the side of employer is known as__________.
(a) Strike
(b) Lockout
(c) Closure
(d) Shutdown
Ans. (b)
Q114. What are the roles played by HRM?
(i) Advisory Role
(ii) Functional Role
(iii) Service Role
(iv) Specialist Role
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
Q115. Human capital is the ______________
(a) Knowledge & skill that individuals acquire through their life & use to produce goods, services or ideas for productive purposes
(b) Sum of people skills, knowledge, attributes, motivation & efforts
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c)
Q116. Organisation is-
(a) The coming together of individuals in order to attain a common goal or purpose
(b) The rational coordination of the activities of a number of people for the achievement of some explicit purpose or goal, through division of labour & function & through a hierarchy of authority & responsibility
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Q117. The attribute of a formal organisation is –
(a) Flexibility
(b) Room for discretion
(c) Method for recognition of individual talent & capacity
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
Q118. A __________ can be defined as several individuals who come together to accomplish a particular task or goal.
(a) matter
(b) group
(c) achievement
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q119. __________ stage is characterized by the recognition of individual differences and shared expectation.
(a) Forming
(b) Storming
(c) Norming
(d) Performing
Ans. (c)
Q120. Group roles may be classified into –
(a) Work Roles
(b) Maintenance Roles
(c) Blocking Roles
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
Q121._______ roles are task – oriented activities that involve accomplishing the group’s goals.
(a) work
(b) maintenance
(c) blocking
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q122.________ refers to the bonding of group members and their desire to remain part of the group.
(a) Cohesiveness
(b) Norms
(c) team
(d) Structure
Ans. (a)
Q123. “Managers are the basic resource of the business enterprise”. The definition is given by —
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Peter Ducker
(c) Dancil Goleman
(d) Hellriegel
Ans. (b)
Q124. ________ is a management process, deductive in nature and designed to produce orderly results, not change.
(a) Planning
(b) organising
c) Directing
d) Controlling
Ans. (a)
Q125. Performance benchmarking —
(a) allows the initiator firm to assess their Competitive position by comparing products and services with those of target firms.
(b) involves studying the leading competitor or the company that best carries out a specific function
(c) embraces everything from staffing and productivity to office flow and analysis of procedures performed.
d) All of the above.
Ans. (a)
Q126. __________ means that the same standard can be applied to any organization large or small, whatever its product or service, in any sector of activity, and whether it is a business enterprise, a public administration, or a government department.
(a) Generic
(b) Genesis
(c) Quality
(d) Product
Ans. (a)
Q127. The key element of Responsibility Charting is –
(a) Decisions or tasks
(b) Stakeholders
(c) Level of participation of each stakeholders in each decision of task
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
Q128._______ is critical to the bank’s future business success and the bank’s performance is linked to people development amounting to investing in the future.
(a) Development
(b) Training
(c) Economic Welfare
(d) Compensation
Ans. (a)
Q129. Describe the Changing role of HRM?
(a) New functions are being added to HR like manpower planning, employee development & performance management
(b) Becomes integral part of management & equally accountable for business results
(c) HR must be actively involved in the process and preparation of business plans & strategies and fulfillment of such plans
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q130. Out of the following, which one is the difference between Leadership & Management?
(a) Management involves planning & budgeting; Leadership involves setting direction
(b) Management involves organisation & staffing; Leadership involves aligning people
(c) Management provides control & solves problem; Leadership provides motivation
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q131. The area of group behaviour that are addressed for teams to be effective is _____
(a) Hardworking
(b) Right mix of skills
(c) Appropriate approaches to problem solving
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q132. The fundamental group needs for group effectiveness is –
(a) Acceptance & Potential
(b) Purpose & Bond
(c) Impact & Reality
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q133. ____ groups are formed by members who enjoy similar social activities, political beliefs, religious values, or other common bonds.
(a) task
(b) project
(c) command
(d) friendship
Ans. d
Q134. Formal group may take the form of —
(a) command groups
(b) Task Groups
(c) Functional Groups
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q135. What are the factors that contribute to the teams effectiveness?
(i) The task itself should be motivating
(ii) The task itself should be worthwhile with a clear visible outcome so that the people can feel a sense of ownership
(iii) The outcome of the task should be perceived as being important to other people’s lives
(iv)The job should provide the team with an opportunity for self- regulation
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q136. The organisational structure in Quality Circle for its effective performance are –
(i) A Steering Committee
(ii) Coordinator
(iii) Facilitator
(iv) Circle Leader
(v) Staff time
(vi) Development
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) ii, iii, iv, v
(c) iii, iv, v, vi
(d) All of the above
Ans. a
Q137. How a change is managed?
(i) Involve & solicit support from people within the system
(ii) Understand where the organisation is at the moment
(iii) Understand where one wants to be, when, why, & what the new measures will be, having got there
(iv) Communicate, involve, enable & facilitate involvement from people as early & openly and as fully as possible
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q138. The selection of employees done on the basis of –
(i) Knowledge
(ii) Skills
(iii) Talent
(iv) Identifying the unique strength
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q139. Knowledge Management is –
(a) Defined in the context of know-why, know-who, know-what & know-when.
(b) An intangible form of asset of an organisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Q140. What are the significant features of Knowledge Management?
(i) KM initiatives can substantially contribute towards cost cutting, product & process innovations, competitiveness & hence can ensure improved operational efficiency as well as better systems, procedures & internal control system
(ii) KM can tremendously improve the competency profile of the employees in an organisation in respect of their skills and knowledge levels
(iii) Organisational value gets enhanced progressively as it is used
(iv) KM initiatives can significantly contribute towards creation & addition of value in organisations
(v) KM initiatives can significantly contribute towards customer service to a large extent
(vi) KM can provide inputs in assessing the risks associated with a loan proposal & hence can help in taking more informed & objective credit decisions
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) ii, iii, iv, v
(c) iii, iv, v, vi
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q.141. SWOT analysis should appraise a firm’s__________ .
(a) strength
(b) weakness and opportunity
(c) threats
(d) all of these
Ans. (d) all of these
Q.142. The rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and to expect the orders to be obeyed is known as___________.
(a) Responsibility
(b) Authority
(c) Chain of Command
(d) Span of control
Ans. (b) Authority
Q.143. Authority should be commensurate with____________.
(a) degree of coordination
(b) position in the hierarchy
(c) degree of responsibility
(d) degree of supervision
Ans. (c) degree of responsibility
Q.144. The beliefs, values and practices adopted by an organisation that directly influence employee conduct and behaviour is known as__________.
(a) Corporate culture
(b) Corporate image
(c) Corporate values
(d) Corporate citizenship
Q.145. In which method of Performance Appraisal Employees are rated only two factors – job performance and promotability, and they are placed between two extremes good and bad _________.
(a) Man-to-man comparison method
(b) Graphic rating method
(c) Forced distribution method
(d) Straight ranking method
Ans. (c) Forced distribution method
Q.146. Wages are paid to ___________.
(a) blue collar worker
(b) white collar worker
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans. (a) Blue collar worker
Q.147. Salary paid to _________.
(a) blue collar worker
(b) white collar worker
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Q.148. The process of establishing career objectives and determining appropriate educational and developmental programmes to further develop the skills required to achieve short- or long-term career objectives is called ______________.
(a) Career development
(b) Career ladder
(c) Career path
(d) Career planning
Q.149. Who has propounded Differential Piece Rate Plan?
(a) Henry Gantt
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Francis A. Walker
(d) Taylor
Ans. (d) Taylor
Q.150. The progression of jobs in an organisation’s specific occupational fields ranked from highest to lowest based on level of responsibility and pay is called_____________.
(a) Career development
(b) Career ladder
(c) Career path
(d) Career planning
Q.151. The progression of jobs in an organisation’s specific occupational fields ranked from lowest to highest in the hierarchical structure is called__________.
(a) Career development
(b) Career ladder
(c) Career path
(d) Career planning
Q.152. Which represent the lower limit of fair wages?
(a) Minimum wage
(b) Living wage
(c) Fair wage
(d) None of these
Q.153. Wages come under ____________.
(a) direct compensation
(b) indirect compensation
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans. (a) direct compensation
Q.154. According to the Committee of Fair Wages ___________ is the highest level of wage.
(a) minimum wage
(b) living wage,
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Q.155. Who propounded Task and Bonus System?
(a) Henry Gantt
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Francis A. Walker
(d) Taylor
Ans. (d) Taylor
Q156. The main objective of the__________ is to provide for registration of trade unions and gives the registered trade Unions a legal status and immunity to their office bearers from civil and criminal liability for pursuing legitimate union activities.
(a) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
(b) Bombay Shop and Establishments Act, 1948
(c) Trade Union Act, 1926
(d) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
Ans. c
Q157. The HR strategic measurement system is-
(a) Core efficiency measures
(b) Strategic efficiency measures
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Q158. The type of managerial decisions which effect the workers of an industry is –
(a) Economic decision – methods of automation, production, mergers, layoff, shutdowns
(b) Personnel decision – work distribution, recruitment, selection, appraisals, transfers, settlement of grievances
(c) Social decision – welfare measures, safety of workers, health, sanitation, work duration, work rules
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q159. The major HR functions are –
(i) Acquisition of Employees
(ii) Training & Development
(iii) Performance Management
(iv) Reward System
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q160. What is Human Resources Planning?
(a) A Process which anticipates & maps out the consequences of business strategy on an organisation human resources
(b) Involves forecasting the number of employees required and then working out the best mode of obtaining them as & when they are needed
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Q161. Discipline management means-
(a) Creating an environment where employees voluntarily obey rules & regulation.
(b) Handling cases of misconduct & Indiscipline
(c) Counseling the employees the need to follow rules
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q162. The underlying assumption of organisational communication is –
(a) Humans act rationally because they have access to all the information to articulate
(b) Communication is a mechanical process in which a message is constructed and encoded by a sender transmitted through some channel & then received & decoded by the receiver.
(c) Organisations are mechanical things in which the parts are interchangeable
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q163. CRM stands for —
(a) Customer Relationship Management
(b) Career Relationship Management
(c) Capital Relationship Management
(d) Care Relationship Management
Ans. a
Q164. What are the advantages of internal recruitment process?
(i) Less Costly
(ii) Candidates already oriented towards organisation
(iii) Organisations have better knowledge about internal candidates
(iv) Employee motivation & morale is enhanced
(v) Traditional approach, play safe
(vi) It abets raiding
(vii) Candidates current work may be affected
(viii) Politics plays greater roles
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iii, iv, v, vi
(c) v, vi, vii, viii
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q165. The essentials of a good selection practice are –
(i) Detailed job description & job specifications prepared in advance & endorsed by HR and Line Management
(ii) Trained panel of interviewers, with special emphasis on behavioural event viewing
(iii) Line Mangers involved at all possible stages
(iv) All newly appointed candidates are put through a well-designed training program
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iii, iv
(d) Only i and ii
Ans. c
Q166._____ can be focus on the strategic dimension of their function.
(a) Human Resource outsourcing
(b) Human Resource Management
(c) Human Resource business Process Outsourcing
(d) Performance Management outsourcing
Ans. b
Q167. Counseling is –
(a) An established process ensures better compliances to rules leading to more productive employees
(b) Is an elaborate process which includes intent listening and adopting positive approach to guide the employee the right way
(c) Giving necessary advice and taking corrective steps in implementation of the rules
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q168. The advantage of workers participation in decision making is –
(i) Reduction in confrontation helps workers in adapting to change Which helps in implementing new methods easily
(ii) Management and workers have better communication which helps the implemented decision to be effective
(iii) Reduction of conflicts & disputes due to joint decision, hence increase in productivity
(iv) All of the above
Ans. d
Q170. Compensation is –
(a) The remuneration received by an employee in return for his/her contribution to the organisation
(b) It is an organised practice that involves balancing of work- employee relation by providing monetary & non-monetary benefits to the organisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Q171. The Function of Shop Council is –
(a) Increase in Production
(b) Overall efficiency
(c) Elimination of wastages
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q172. Strategic compensation is –
(a) Determining & providing the compensation packages that are aligned with the business goals & objectives
(b) A process of determining the compensation package based on strategies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. a
Q173. Employee Risk Assessment –
(a) Is a careful examination of what could harm the people, so that one can assess whether they have taken enough precautions or should do more to prevent harm
(b) Helps to focus on the risks that really matter at the workplace, the ones with the potential to cause harm
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Q174. Under________ method, checklist of statements of traits of employee in the form of Yes or No based questions is prepared.
(a) Rating Scales
(b) Trait Analysis
(c) Forced choice
(d) Forced distribution
Ans. b
Q175. The uses of Performance Appraisal are –
(i) Promotions
(ii) Confirmations
(iii) Training & development
(iv) Compensation reviews
(v) Competency Building
(a) i, ii
(b) iii, iv, v
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Q176. What is a 360 degree appraisal?
(a) It is a technique which involves systematic collection of performance data on an individual or group, derived from a number of stakeholders like immediate supervisors, team members, customers, peers and self
(b) It is in a form of questionnaire which involves a group of people who gives useful information on how an employee does a job
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All of the above
Ans. c
Q177. What are the Disadvantages of Assessment centers?
(i) Costly & time consuming
(ii) Ratings strongly influenced by assessee’s interpersonal skills
(iii) Good performers may feel suffocated in simulated situations
(iv) Non selected candidates will get affected
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
(d) None of the above
Ans. a
Q178. HRM Goals be defined as –
(i) To meet the needs of the business & management
(ii) To link human resource policies to the business goals & objectives
(iii) To find ways for human resources to “add value” to a business
(iv) To help business gain the commitment of employees to its values, goals & objectives
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) I, iii, iv
(d) None of the above
Ans. a
Q179. Learning styles may be –
(a) Auditory
(b) Visual
(c) Kinesthetic
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q180. Motivation is –
(a) A psychological feature that arouses an organism to action toward a desired goal
(b) The reason for the action that gives purpose and direction to behaviour
(c) A psychological process that gives the behaviour purpose and direction, a predisposition to behave in a purposive manner to achieve specific, unmet needs
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Q181. The “Hierarchy of need” theory –
(i) Human beings have wants & desires which influences their behaviour. Only unsatisfied needs influence behaviour
(ii) Prioritisation of needs is important
(iii) The person advances to the next level of need if the lower level is satisfied
(iv) Upward Progression will exhibit a person’s more individuality, humanness & psychological health
(a) i, ii
(b) iii, iv
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Q182._______ is the attempt to build in to jobs a higher sense of challenge and achievement.
(a) Job Enlargement
(b) Job Enrichment
(c) Job Rotation
(d) None of the above
Ans. b
Q183. The objective of Training & Development is –
(a) To Improve Performance
(b) An attempt to improve the current or future employee performance by increasing an employee’s ability to perform through learning, usually by increasing his / her skills and knowledge
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Q184. Under_______ method usually employees are put on different jobs turn by turn where they learn all sorts of jobs of various departments.
(a) Job Rotation
(b) Job Coaching
(c) Job Instruction
(d) Apprenticeships
Ans. a
Q185. What are the merits of Job enrichment?
(i) It benefits employee & organisation in terms of increased motivation, performance, satisfaction, job involvement and reduced absenteeism
(ii) Additional features in job meet certain psychological needs of jobholders due to skill variety, identity, significance of job , etc.
(iii) It also adds to employee self-esteem & self-control
(iv) Gives status to jobholder and acts as a strong satisfier in one’s life
(v) Examine the jobs selected with the conviction that changes can be introduced
(vi) Screen the list for hygiene suggestions and retain only ideas classed as motivators
(vii) Remove the generalities from the list retaining only specific motivators
(viii) Avoid employee involvement in the design process
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iii, iv, v, vi
(c) v, vi, vii, viii
(d) All of the above
Ans. a
Q186. Motivation can be –
(a) Intrinsic
(b) Extrinsic
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. c
Q187. CRR Stands for –
(a) Cash revenue ratio
(b) Cash reserve ratio
(c) Cost revenue ratio
(d) None of the above
Ans. b
Q188. ______________ is a verbal lecture presentation by an instructor to a large audience.
(a) Classroom lecture
(b) Audiovisual
(c) Simulation
(d) Laboratories
Ans. a
Q189. Which pair represents the quantitative methods of job evaluation?
(a) Ranking and point methods
(b) Job classification and factor comparison methods
(c) Factor comparison and point methods
(d) Job classification and point methods
Ans. c
Q190. The method of settling industrial disputes with direct state intervention does not include
(a) compulsory establishment of bipartite committees
(b) adjudication
(c) collective bargaining
(d) compulsory conciliation
Ans. c
Q191. Which area does not require much attention in international HRM?
(a) concepts of wages
(b) remuneration paid by competing organisations
(c) statutory regulation of wages in the host country
(d) level of standard of living in the host country
Ans. a
Q192. A detailed and systematic statement of physical and mental attributes of an individual who is to fill a job is called
(a) job evaluation
(b) job description
(c) job specification
(d) job classification
Ans. c
Q193. Management of change is concerned with context of
a. Organisation (inner and outer) / time of sequence
b. Change
c. Process of implementing change
d. All above
e. Both (a) + (c)
Q194. Human capital plays constructive role in M & A process. What is required for its effectiveness?
a. ensuring effective communications
b. achieving cultural alignment + formation of mobile team of transition executives + (a) above
c. treating those leaving with same respect and attention as those staying
d. Both (b) + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q195. The responsibility of the Line Managers in HR is to create conditions and develop them in order to enable employee to
a. acquire and develop new condition
b. perceive possible outcome of such new capabilities + (a)
c. assess the self-growth and enjoy the growth process + (b) above d.
d. These are the responsibility of HR Manager
Q196. What are the requirements of an innovative recruitment?
a. Just hire even without specific job profile
b. Right leadership + (a)
c. Cross border and homing pigeon + (b)
d. Making its own leaders + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q197. What is the purpose of promotion?
a. Greater use to organisation
b. Recognition of individual performance + (a)
c. Promote job satisfaction + (b)
d. Provide opportunities to enhance employee’s skills and activities + (c)
e. Only (a) + (b)
Ans. (d)
Q198. Discuss the pitfalls of 360° performance appraisal
a. Cannot work in controlled, hierarchical environment
b. Collection of feedback, a discounting task
c. Subjectivity in rating/different behaviour and their different findings / tough task to rate boss or colleagues / + (a) + (b)
d. Postponement of performance appraisal indefinitely when negative feedback / bosses tend to become hard towards subordinates and give lower scores in the name of, better administration
Ans. (c)
Q199. Maslow Theory of motivation is based on –
a. Human needs
b. Achievement
c. Power needs
d. Two factors
Ans. (a)
Q200. Off the job Training Method consists of –
a. Lecturers / conference / group discussions / e-learning
b. Apprenticeship / assistant to executives / job rotation
c. Step, by step training identified in a sequence
d. Training on similar to those actual practice
Ans. (a)
Q201. Advantages of e-learning are –
a. Self-paced, allows for consistency and incorporates built in guidance
b. All trainees ready for e-learning
c. Appropriate for leadership and cultural change
d. Lesser upfront cost and investment
Q202. Features of collective bargaining is / are –
a. Collectively / equal strength / sufficient flexibility
b. Negotiations voluntarily / continuous process / dynamic process / power relationship
c. Employer-employee do not retreat from their positions
d. Both (a) + (b) collective
Ans. (d)
Q203. What do you mean by factual grievance?
a. Legitimate needs remain unfulfilled
b. Legitimate needs are fulfilled but others are not
c. Wrong perception / wrong attitude / wrong information by employees
d. Both (b) + (c)
Ans. (a)
Q204. Causes of industrial disputes are –
a. Wages / Union rivalry / multiplicity of labour laws
b. Political interferences / unfair labour practices
c. Economic slowdown + (a) + (b)
d. Both (a) + (b)
Ans. (c)
Q205. Recruitment placement and employment in personnel management, includes various features, which are –
a. Job analysis / HR planning / placement of right candidate
b. Introduction and orientation / internal mobility
c. Training / managerial skills development / career path development
d. All above
e. Only (a) + (b)
Ans. (e)
Q206. Frauds can be committed by –
a. Bank Staff
b. Bank Staff in collusion with outsiders
c. Frauds done by customers or outsiders
d. All above
Q207. How does works councils differ from Joint Committees of workers?
a. Works councils consist of members elected by employees; joint committees consist of representative’s employees and employer
b. Works councils consist of nominated members both by employees and employers and same is far Joint Committees
c. Works councils consist of representatives of employees while joint committees elected members of employees
d. Both works councils and joint committee members are nominated by Labour Welfare Officer
Ans. (a)
Q208. Total Quality Management refers to deep commitment to quality of products and services. For this how the employees are involved by the organisation?
a. Extensive training in problem solving
b. Group decision making and statistical methods
c. To take responsibility for improving quality
d. Only (b) + (c)
e. All above
Ans. (e)
Q209. What is the purpose of Job-enrichment to workers?
a. Relieve the bore down of workers
b. Source of self-satisfaction
c. Substitute for workers participation
d. Both (a) + (b) only
e. All above
Ans. (d)
Q210. When does empowering occurs when
a. Power goes to employees
b. Feeling of sense of ownership
c. Feeling of that jobs belong to them
d. All above
e. Only (a) + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q211. Define Strike
a. A spontaneous and concerted withdrawal of labour temporarily
b. Collective stoppage of work by a group of workers for pressurising their employer to accept their demands
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Persons employed to discontinue to work, at the instance of their employers
Ans. (c)
Q212. Kinds of Industrial disputes is / are –
a. Strikes / Lockouts / Gherao / picketing and boycott
b. Picketing and boycott / gherao
c. Strikes and lockouts
d. Gherva / strikes
Ans. (a)
Q213. Describe the essential features of personnel management
a. Concerned with employees both as individual and group / development of human skills
b. Covers all categories of employees / applies in all type of organisation,
c. Aims at attaining the organisational goals / concerned mainly with managing HR work
d. Both (a) + (b) only
e. All above
Ans. (e)
Q214. Employees should believe that there is consistent response to rules’ violations, which means
a. Discipline administration without discrimination
b. Without favouritism
c. Consistently
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q215. Effective Discipline is of which types?
a. Appreciable and non-approvable
b. Positive and Negative
c. Harsh and Soft
d. Excusable and non-excusable
Ans. (b)
Q216. HRD environment eventually means actions, tendencies and commitments which supports.
a. openness and risks taking
b. Proactivity and autonomy
c. Collides with each other
d. Only (a) + (b)
Ans. (d)
Q217. To achieve, workers increased productivity and organisational profitability, the role of a HRD manager is –
a. to assist employees in obtaining knowledge / skills
b. to play enabling role for providing the right context
c. Intervention on individual and organisational effectiveness
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All above
Ans. (e)
Q218. Define the basic steps needed in BPR
a. Implementation of traditional process / designing and preparing a prototype of new process
b. Implementation of new process / reviewing and evaluating the progress.
c. Identification of I.T. levels / discarding the existing processes
d. Development of business vision keeping the old objectives
Q219. Members of the team take responsibility, for the team as a whole only if there is –
a. Co-operation
b. Support and trust
c. Common objective
d. Appropriate leadership
Q220. What are the expectations from HR department?
a. Change a fact of corporate life
b. Employee satisfaction
c. Employees commitment
d. All above
Q221. Important features of knowledge are –
a. Does not suffer from scarcity / location no longer matters
b. Trade business, laws, taxes etc., cannot be applied easily + knowledge is difficult to quantify
c. Both (b) + (a)
d. Knowledge is difficult to quantify + (a) above
Ans. (d)
Q222. What is the major change in Public Sector Banks, after globalisation?
a. Shed off their traditional attitude
b. resorted to aggressive marketing
c. Used better technology and customer orientation as against private sector banks
d. Success depends on the ability of banks for financial potential
Q223. Essentials required in a good manager in an organisation, are –
a. Moral quotient
b. Should not sacrifice long term value
c. Spiritual quotient
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q224. Psychological barriers in communication do not include –
a. Ill-considered judgements
b. Failure to listen oral or non-verbal communications
c. Loss by transmission and poor retention
d. Unwillingness to communicate upward
Ans. (d)
Q225. What is the object, under performance appraisal of the employee, in any organisation?
a. Avoid discrimination in ranking the personnel
b. Avoid professionalism to base the career of the personnel
c. To assess as per whims of the seniors
d. To assess as per exit policy of the organisation
Q226. The leadership function is exercised by
a. The formal leader only
b. Members other than the formal leader
c. Leaders to produce result
d. Members to have goal clarity
Q227. The main activities of change management are –
a. Filtering changes / managing changes / management reporting
b. Reviewing and closing of requests for change
c. All above
d. Providing management information
Ans. (c)
Q228. Feedback is a regular interaction with the employee and shows:
a. response to acts and omission or commission
b. opportunity to improve his/her performance + (a)
c. sort of summary of an employee’s work
d. non-performance / performance / contribution of the employee
Ans. (b)
Q229. What is the job of work analysis in competency mapping?
a. Helps to describe skills required to carry out a function
b. tasks / responsibilities and skill requirements for successful job
c. Workforce of the future in line with the vision
d. All above
Ans. (a)
Q230. Anything which gives satisfaction to the person is called –
a. Incentive
b. Reward
c. Achievement
d. Involvement
Ans. (b)
Q231. State any three common causes of indiscipline
a. Unfair management practices / communication barriers / Non-uniform disciplinary action
b. Divide and Rule Policy / absence of effective leadership / adequate attention to personnel problems
c. Delay in solving problems / frustration among individuals / mild pressures on subordinates
d. Dividing one’s own team / undertaking disciplinary actions leading to non-violent protests/provision of upward communication.
Ans. (a)
Q232. What are the factors in the situation that influence perception?
(a) Interest and time
(b) Interest and social setting
(c) Work setting and time
(d) Experience and proximity
Ans. (c) Work setting and time
Q.233. Audits of managers are called ______________.
(a) Management inventory
(b) HR audit
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Skill, inventories
Ans. (a) Management inventory
Q.234. Favoritism shown to relatives by individuals in a position of authority, such as managers or supervisors is known as ___________.
(a) Nepotism
(b) Favour
(c) Discrimination
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Nepotism
Q.235. Judging someone on the basis of one’s perception of the group to which that person belongs, is known as ___________.
(a) Selective perception
(b) Halo effect
(c) Contrast effect
(d) Stereotyping
Ans. (d) Stereotyping